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2022 Certification 8010 Test Questions | New 8010 Test Review
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NEW QUESTION 40
The capital adequacy ratio applied to risk weighted assets for the calculation of capital requirements for credit risk per Basel II is:

  • A. 12.5%
  • B. 8%
  • C. 100%
  • D. 150%

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The capital adequacy ratio, also called the minimum capital requirement for credit risk per Basel II is 8% of riskweighted assets. The other choices are incorrect.

 

NEW QUESTION 41
Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to the recent financial crisis of 2007-08?

  • A. An intention to diversify from their core activities led all market participants to the same activities, which though appearing diversified at the bank's level, created a concentration risk at the systemic level
  • B. Counterparty risk was difficult togauge as it was impossible to know who the counterparty's counterparties were
  • C. Central banks had data on the interconnections between institutions, but poor understanding and analysis meant this data was never analyzed
  • D. The existence of central counterparties could have limited the damage caused by the financial crisis

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Counterparty risk was difficult to gauge as it was impossible to know who the counterparty's counterparties were - this is true as the chain of financial transactions became excessively long with no central transparency of who owed who what. Bank A's credit depended upon the health of its counterparties, whose health in turn depended upon other counterparties. Thus Choice 'd' is a correct statement.
In an attempt to diversify, banks became more like each other - chasing yield, they piled into securitized products, and chasing diversification, they piled into different types of securitized products. The system as a whole became susceptible to small shocks in the assets underlying this vast edifice of structured products.
Therefore Choice 'a' represents a correct statement.
Choice 'c' does not represent a correct statement. Central banks had little data on the interconnections between institutions. They were aware of the large volumes of OTC transactions, but had no data to figure out who was connected to who, and who had what kind of exposures.
Choice 'b' represents a correct statement. Most transactions, other than exchange cleared futures trades (which were atiny fraction of all trades) were cleared on a bilateral basis. The existence of central counterparties (CCPs) could have limited the impact of the crisis significantly as market participants would not have lost trust in each other, and the 'collateral damage' that was witnessed from a fall in housing prices, and thereby mortgage assets, would have been more contained.

 

NEW QUESTION 42
Under the CreditPortfolio View model of credit risk, the conditional probability of default will be:

  • A. higherthan the unconditional probability of default in an economic expansion
  • B. lower than the unconditional probability of default in an economic expansion
  • C. the same as the unconditional probability of default in an economic expansion
  • D. lower than the unconditional probability of default in an economic contraction

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
When the economy is expanding, firms are less likely to default. Therefore the conditional probability of default, given an economic expansion, is likely to be lower than the unconditional probability of default.
Therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answerand the other statements are incorrect.

 

NEW QUESTION 43
Which of the following are considered properties of a 'coherent' risk measure:
I. Monotonicity
II. Homogeneity
III. Translation Invariance
IV. Sub-additivity

  • A. II and III
  • B. II and IV
  • C. All of theabove
  • D. I and III

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
All of the properties described are the properties of a 'coherent' risk measure.
Monotonicity means that if a portfolio's future value is expected to be greater than that of another portfolio, its risk should be lower than thatof the other portfolio. For example, if the expected return of an asset (or portfolio) is greater than that of another, the first asset must have a lower risk than the other. Another example:
between two options if the first has a strike price lower thanthe second, then the first option will always have a lower risk if all other parameters are the same. VaR satisfies this property.
Homogeneity is easiest explained by an example: if you double the size of a portfolio, the risk doubles. The linear scaling property of a risk measure is called homogeneity. VaR satisfies this property.
Translation invariance means adding riskless assets to a portfolio reduces total risk. So if cash (which has zero standard deviation and zero correlation with other assets) is added to a portfolio, the risk goes down. A risk measure should satisfy this property, and VaR does.
Sub-additivity means that the total risk for a portfolio should be less than the sum of its parts. This is a property that VaR satisfies most of thetime, but not always. As an example, VaR may not be sub-additive for portfolios that have assets with discontinuous payoffs close to the VaR cutoff quantile.

 

NEW QUESTION 44
Which of the following statements are true:
I. The sum of unexpected losses for individual loans in a portfolio is equal to the total unexpected loss for the portfolio.
II. The sum of unexpected losses for individual loans in a portfolio is less than the total unexpected loss for the portfolio.
III. The sum of unexpected losses forindividual loans in a portfolio is greater than the total unexpected loss for the portfolio.
IV. The unexpected loss for the portfolio is driven by the unexpected losses of the individual loans in the portfolio and the default correlation between these loans.

  • A. I, II and III
  • B. III and IV
  • C. I and II
  • D. II and IV

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Unexpected losses (UEL) for individual loans in a portfolio will always sum to greater than the total unexpected loss for the portfolio (unless all the loans are correlatedin such a way that they default together).
This is akin to the 'diversification effect' in market risk, in other words, not all the obligors would default together. So the UEL for the portfolio will always be less than the sum of the UELs for individual loans.
Therefore statement III is true.This 'diversification effect' will be affected by the default correlations between the obligors, in cases where the probability of various obligors defaulting together is low, the UEL for the portfolio would bemuch less than the UEL for the individual loans. Hence statement IV is true.I and II are false for the reasons explained above.

 

NEW QUESTION 45
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